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Pondering a bit how Harry gets treated in canon... we come to the incident in Chamber of Secrets where Dobby performs magic and Harry gets blamed for it. Which is odd. The Ministry simply assumed that any magic performed in the vicinity of #4 Privet Drive had been done by Harry... and then compounded the problem by sending an owl instead of a human being to actually investigate.
If that is the standard way of applying that law, then the law is obviously biased against Muggleborns (and Muggle-raised) because the implementation of it does not detect who did the magic, it simply assumes that any magic performed at a Muggleborn's residence is done by the Muggleborn child, and any magic performed at a Pureblood's residence is done by an adult.
"There is one law for rich and poor alike, which prohibits them equally from stealing bread and sleeping under bridges." -- Anatole France
In other words, there is one law for Purebloods and Muggleborn alike, which prohibits them equally from performing magic not in the presence of a magical parent.
If that is the standard method of dealing with underage magic. We have the other data-point of Hermione having performed spells with her new wand after she got her Hogwarts letter but before she arrived at Hogwarts, without getting into trouble.
I can think of a few different reasons for that:
1) It was classed as "accidental magic" because she hadn't yet started at Hogwarts.
2) The Ministry can't be bothered monitoring everyone, but they would monitor Harry Potter carefully.
3) Dobby took extra measures to ensure that his magic would be noticed and blamed on Harry.
I wonder if that law was introduced by a Pureblood?
If that is the standard way of applying that law, then the law is obviously biased against Muggleborns (and Muggle-raised) because the implementation of it does not detect who did the magic, it simply assumes that any magic performed at a Muggleborn's residence is done by the Muggleborn child, and any magic performed at a Pureblood's residence is done by an adult.
"There is one law for rich and poor alike, which prohibits them equally from stealing bread and sleeping under bridges." -- Anatole France
In other words, there is one law for Purebloods and Muggleborn alike, which prohibits them equally from performing magic not in the presence of a magical parent.
If that is the standard method of dealing with underage magic. We have the other data-point of Hermione having performed spells with her new wand after she got her Hogwarts letter but before she arrived at Hogwarts, without getting into trouble.
I can think of a few different reasons for that:
1) It was classed as "accidental magic" because she hadn't yet started at Hogwarts.
2) The Ministry can't be bothered monitoring everyone, but they would monitor Harry Potter carefully.
3) Dobby took extra measures to ensure that his magic would be noticed and blamed on Harry.
I wonder if that law was introduced by a Pureblood?
